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Post by Nada Al-Hellai on October 31, 2013

I here did it in another way, not sure if its right.. but I thought since f(0)=g(0)=0 then lim x-->0 will be "0/0" limit and then I apply L'H- rule
and get limx-->0 f'(x)/g'(x) = cox(x)/1 =1/1 = 1...

I did it right there?

AP Calculus AB Practice test: Section 1: Multiple Choice Part 3

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